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#1017095 07/23/02 10:57 AM
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I was discussing my W's latest infidelity with a good friend, going back and forth contemplating whether a D was the answer. He mentioned it states in the bible that infidelity is the only acceptable reason for D.

Has anyone ever heard this before and if so, could you tell me where this is stated in the bible?

Just curious.

#1017096 07/23/02 11:34 PM
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sotiredofitall,

It does state that in the Bible. I looked up all the passages that I could on marriage and divorce. At the moment, I don't remember where to find it.

There are some that dispute this, that it only applies during the engagement period.

I am headed out of town for 2 weeks but would be glad to look those up. Just post here & when I get back, would be happy to do so.

God Bless,

D.

#1017097 07/24/02 12:04 AM
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1 Corinthians Ch 7

Scripturally, what are grounds for the divorce of a believer?
http://www.netbible.com/docs/q&a/q&a-97.htm

If there is something that God is very clear about, it is that He hates divorce (Malachi 2:16)

#1017098 07/24/02 08:08 AM
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sotiredofitall,

My kids are not ready to go this morning so I did look up the verse : Mathew 5:31 - 32.

There are also references in ICorinthians 7 (as going crazy mentions) Thanks for the online reference to the Bible!

God Bless
D.

#1017099 07/24/02 08:43 AM
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Matthew 5

Divorce

31"It has been said, 'Anyone who divorces his wife must give her a certificate of divorce.'[1] 32But I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for marital unfaithfulness, causes her to become an adulteress, and anyone who marries the divorced woman commits adultery.

#1017100 07/24/02 11:30 PM
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I had never heard of divorce only applying to the engagement period until I got involved with rejoice ministries. Her is what is in a book that I am reading. It is taken from "The Divorce Myth".

Jesus is clear on the subject of no divorce "except for maritial unfaithfulness." This clause is used by many to justify divorce from a spouse guilty of adultery. But the original Greek text used the word porneia to describe this act of unfaithfulness. What does porneia mean in the context of Jewish society at the time that Jesus made this statement?

Jewish custom in the time of Jesus was for the bridegroom to pay a dowery to the father of the bride for the economis loss to the family(People had children in those days to help tend the flock, work in the fields and carry water). Once the dowery was paid, a betrothal or promise of marriage was made. Rings were exchanged and vows were spoken at this time, but the marriage was not conummated. At least 12 months passed between the betrothal and the actually wedding. This waiting period was a time for the bride to gather her wardrobe and prepare herself for marriage. The bridegroom would likewise prepare the living quarters in his fathers house for the bride.

Once the waiting period was over, the bride would be led in procession with her family, friends and guest by torchlight to the house of the bridegroom. The marriage was pronounced and legal documents were signed. During the wedding feast, the bride and groom would slip into the bridal chamber and consummate the marriage. If the bride was found not to be a virgin at this time, the husband could legally "divorce" his wife due to her unfaithfulness. This is the meaning of porneia as used in this text.

Under Jewish custom, the betrothal was legally-binding contract that could only be broken by death or formal divorce. Betrothal was as binding as marriage. It is interesting to note that marriages to virgins in those days took place on Wednesday afternoons because the Sanhedrin met on thursday mornings. If a bride was found not to be a virgin, a lawsuit could be immediately filed the following morning. Following this custom, Joseph was going to divorce Mary privately when she was found to be with child(Matthew 1:19). An angel appeared to Joseph in a dream to assure him that Mary had not been unfaithful and that the conception had taken place miraculously by the Holy Spirit.

According to this view of the "exception clause" in Matthew 19:8, divorce was only permitted during the betrothal period. Once the marriage was consummated, only death could break the union.

I have not asked my pastor about this but we meet in our church so I suppose he is aware of this view. Just something to think about though as you decide whether or not to stand for your marriage.

I pray that your marriage will be restored.

Love in Christ

cajunky


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